Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 05:25
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why does my vagina always itch so badly after my periods?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Would the word literate carry the same meaning with public (common wealth) in 1900 vs today 2020?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.